Utility Helicopter 60M (UH-60M) Exam 1 Practice

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• What does the F / MDS consist of?
• When can you arm ALTP?
• Where are the landing light and search light located relative to the crew?
• The CMWS includes which type of sensors mounted near the nose door?
• If I see IG1 what kind of navigation solution is being provided?
• What does the cursor box's coordinate display describe?
• The tail wheel swivels ______ on the yoke assembly when unlocked.
• Which of the following is NOT part of the UH-60M's primary mission?
• The FMS sends information to which MFD?
• ETA and TTG are only available for which NAV source?
• Which partition provides 2 GB of memory for map storage in the FMS?
• What is the primary mission of this helicopter?
• The main rotor blade spar material is what?
• The pitch and roll attitude inputs to the PFD are provided by what?
• Difference between Load and Activate (IAP)?
• Which of the following is a hover submode?
• Which of the following is NOT used to adjust the IAS reference value?
• Armor protection is designed against which caliber?
• What options are available when nearest waypoints is selected from the FPN page?
• Which statement best describes the ICS architecture?
• Which light is located under the pilot?
• Which statement best describes how the bus controller is selected?
• INI PAGE 3/3 verify metric?
• Selecting ____________ from the menu accesses the symbol, graphic, or waypoint data as appropriate, for the hooked item.
• The main rotor blades are what type of spar?
• P-SYNC operation fixes the barometric altitude display to what standard value?
• Which statement correctly matches the orientation of the ND FULL and ND PLAN displays?
• The cyclic trim beeper is used as part of which primary recovery procedure?
• Pressing the MFSC select switch is interpreted as pressing which bezel key?
• Which component is the central unit of the ICS?
• Reversionary Switch Panel: What does it allow a pilot to do?
• What caution appears on the EICAS when in manual mode?
• Recover to level flight attitude: which command ensures Barometric Altitude Hold and IAS Hold with wings level when the cyclic trim beeper is used above 60 knots?
• Why should you not store any items below the pilot seats?
• What is the total usable main tank capacity in gallons?
• Which MFD is powered by the aircraft battery?
• Hover submodes can be engaged only if airspeed is below what value?
• RAIM stands for what?
• Which function inserts the selected procedure into the active flight plan without guidance?
• What is the maximum capacity of the equip stowage compartments?
• The radio control panel on the lower console is connected to which radio?
• During the 60-80 knot airspeed range, what IAS is commanded when plunging the cyclic trim beeper?
• Which is NOT a roll NAV source?
• What functions does the Collective Slew Controller (CSC) provide?
• Which of the following are examples of uncoupled FD basic aircraft mode references?
• Which of the following describes the top lines of the MFD display?
• The cargo hook is used to carry loads up to?
• The VLEA can be adjusted from which range to which range?
• Which page contains the Mission Data Page used to modify COM data for presets?
• What changes the direction, transmits torque and reduces shaft speed from the main module to the tail rotor gear box?
• The radio control panel on the lower console is connected to which radio?
• Which light is located under the copilot?
• GO ARND is designed to level the aircraft attitude, establish a _____ fpm rate of climb and establish _____ KIAS.
• The seat strokes from _______ inches minimum to _______ inches maximum?
• What is the first underlined step for an uncommanded change in normal flight conditions while coupled to the FD?
• To select radios using the collective selector switch, which feature must be enabled?
• To engage level attitude recovery, which action and threshold must be performed?
• The windshields feature layered shatter-resistant polycarbonate construction. Which option best describes this?
• What are the 4 Power control lever positions?
• The canted tail rotor provides what percent of the total lifting force?
• Where is the Go ARND switch located?
• What does a large red X on the EICAS display indicate?
• In hover mode, which indicators are displayed?
• If the Flight Director fails, what two cautions will appear?
• Rotor blades have a ______ degree twist.
• To load mission data, INI page 1/3 select what?
• True or false: when coupled, the flight director can prevent exceeding engine (torque and TGT) limitations when the aircraft gross weight is less than 16,825 lbs
• Which statement correctly describes the two places to see storm scope?
• Which option correctly represents a valid maximum number of navigational points in the FMS database?
• Which roll nav source cannot be armed?
• ALTP can be ARMED _____ and captures ______ft prior to selected altitude.
• The stabilator moves about which axis?
• The ND FULL display is oriented?
• How many store points can be captured on the fly?
• What is the maximum number of waypoints that can be entered into a flight plan?
• Range rings are displayed in dynamic mode; which option correctly places Dynamic as the answer?
• Which component allows selection of an alternate data source for flight information?
• What does standby mode indicate regarding a flight director?
• Which item is NOT provided by the EGI?
• The _______ provides pneumatic power for main engine start, cabin heating and electrical power for ground operations and inflight emergency electrical power
• The glide slope has an auto level sub-mode designed to level the aircraft at ______ ft AGL.
• The bottom trailing edge of the tail pylon has a fairing with a ________ degree of camber to decrease the amount of tail rotor pitch/anti-torque required in forward flight.
• In the nose compartment, which flight control computer is installed?
• What is the function of the P-SYNC knob?
• The windshields are made of which material?
• An FMS alert _____________________ is displayed when the aircraft exceeds the containment limit
• What are the three positions of the backup pump switch?
• When coupled to the Flight Director, the pilot shall be in a position to override which inputs?
• What are the three types of tests?
• The MFD provides control of ASE threat shading on all tactical map underlays when which feature is turned on?
• What does FMS switch on emergency control panel do?
• The cursor box displays the geo-referenced coordinates of the cursor position and will be displayed in either which units?
• Which field uses the 'R' wind designation?
• What determines which FMS becomes the bus controller?
• Vne for this aircraft is?
• GO ARND is designed to level the aircraft attitude, establish a _____ fpm rate of climb and establish _____ KIAS.
• What are the first five lines of data displayed on the FMS screen called?
• How should PCMCIA cards be inserted into the DTU?
• What does an illuminated ICU light mean?
• The accumulator pressure gauge should read _______ PSI for APU starting
• The ICS comprises five control panels distributed around the cockpit; what else is included?
• How many MFDs are present?
• How many fire extinguisher handles are in the aircraft?
• How do you access the data frame sub-menu?
• Which display element identifies which FMS operates by which Bus Controller?
• If you change uncoupled FD basic aircraft mode references (RALT, ALT-P, ALT, IAS, HDG, VS), will the coupled FD references update accordingly?
• How many waypoints may be put into a single flight plan?
• IG1 navigation solution described as what?
• The map annunciation block displays which two types of annunciations?
• Radar altimeter can read up to how many ft?
• What does Yellow Text indicate on the display?
• Alerts are displayed on a ______ basis?
• Which statement correctly identifies the UH-60M's maximum gross weight?
• With IAS mode engaged, what are three ways the pilot may adjust the reference value?
• Which control toggles the map orientation among Heading-up (HDG), North up, and Track up, with Heading up as the default mode?
• When LOC is selected as the NAV SRC, BC will display on the FD when the difference between the inbound course and aircraft heading is greater than ______ degrees?
• For airspeed between 80 and 120 knots, which commands are issued when the cyclic trim beeper is plunged?
• Which combination correctly lists components described as part of the F/MDS?
• On the Nav Display page, map annunciations are displayed where?
• The ESIS display is located in the upper center of the instrument panel.
• The engine fire extinguisher handles are located on which component?
• Which option is NOT a type of frame file?
• The stabilator's variable angle of incidence enhances which flight quality?
• IG2 navigation solution is indicated by which option?
• Which two components have less than one foot clearance when extended?
• Which map orientation mode keeps the map aligned with the aircraft's track?
• How is cockpit ventilation controlled?
• What is the primary function of the PCMCIA cards used by the data transfer unit in the FMS?
• What happens when the cyclic trim beeper is plunged below 60 knots?
• Which color indicates a warning and exceedance on the FMS?
• The Cyclic GO ARND button is described as which of the following?
• Which navigation source can provide a time source?
• How can the tailwheel be locked in the trail position?
• Yellow Text: What condition triggers Yellow Text on the display?
• What material is used where aluminum paneling couldn't be used to provide E3 protection?
• Loss of FCC #1 results in the loss of which system?
• Which mode will automatically engage on the coupled FD at 50 KIAS?
• How wide is the UH-60M at its widest point?
• How many gallons of fuel are in each main tank?
• DAFIF data updates occur on a cycle of how many days?
• What does the STS annunciation mean?
• Which knob is used to adjust the heading reference in HDG mode?
• Which sub mode displays distance rings, storm scope, flight plan, and hover point?
• Which term toggles the map orientation among HDG, NORTH, and TRK?
• The helicopter has a variable angle of incidence stabilator to enhance _______ qualities.
• The ADI expands to the expanded scale when which is tuned?
• What does the P-SYNC control do in relation to the FD reference value?
• When the cyclic trim beeper is pressed above 60 KIAS, which collective axis will couple?
• Which altitude does HAT use?
• Which statement describes the function of the Flight Director?
• What does FCC #2 control?
• How is the MFD display and its submodes selected?
• What are the two RNP modes available to the crew on the Flight Plan Management page?
• Each main transmission accessory module provides mounting and drive to which two units?
• How many modes are there available in the ICS system?
• How is HDG mode adjusted?
• The USER partition of the DTS is used for what?
• Which of the following is NOT a power lever position?
• Which set of items correctly represents the uncoupled FD basic aircraft mode references?
• How many crew members are required for UH-60M operations, and who are they?
• What kind of rotor system does the UH-60M have?
• On which edit menu can you select ADD or INSERT?
• What is the purpose of aluminum paneling on the UH-60M?
• What is the default map orientation mode?
• Stabilator position indicator display range?
• RAIM is a GPS signal integrity monitoring system. Which option best describes RAIM?
• The outboard, No. 1 and No. 4 MFDs default to the _________ upon power up.
• The main transmission has a built in ________ forward tilt
• Which items can be displayed on the ARC sub mode that are not displayed on the full sub mode?
• ENG OUT occurs when NG falls below what percentage?
• Which page allows the pilot to change the com data/frequency assigned to a specific preset?
• The digital clock has an internal battery that will keep it functioning for how long?
• Which weight is the equip stowage compartments' maximum per side?
• How many presets are provided for each COMM band?
• If the Bus Controller (BC) FMS fails, the FMS switch on the _______ should be set to make the operational FMS the new BC.
• How many Electro-Optic Missile sensors (EOMS) are mounted on the sides of the nose door?
• How can you quickly "capture" a Target Store point?
• Which option best describes the data frame submenu's purpose?
• PRIOR TO USING CALC PERFORMANCE, MUST VERIFY?
• Through which axis are the steering cues produced by the Flight Director commands?
• Which screen on the Flight Plan Management is used to view procedures and related waypoint data without enabling approach loading?
• Which component processes and commands steering cues?
• Once GO ARND has achieved the above parameters, ___ mode disengages, ___ and ___ modes will engage
• Which navigation source is capture only?
• The landing gear is designed to absorb a landing rate of up to ______ fps
• How are the MFDs numbered?
• Warning caution shading on digital maps is based on which parameter?
• The P-SYNC function of the barometric altimeter sets the numerical value to what?
• The stabilator acts on which axis?
• When can level attitude recovery be pressed? (Plunging the cyclic trim beeper)
• Which action inserts the selected procedure into the active flight plan and provides flight guidance to the first point?
• The plunge command will engage IAS mode at which condition?
• The cabin floor is rated for ________ lbs per square foot.
• How many seconds of data does the I-event switch capture?
• Which display devices are part of the flight director set?
• How are flight plan procedures accessed?
• Data frames are equivalent to which document category?
• What is the maximum gross weight of the UH-60M?
• Where is the APU T-handle located?
• What does the ICS consist of?
• ASE threats can be found on which displays?
• Where is FCC #1 located?
• Which gauge symptom indicates an input failure on the EICAS?
• ASE threats are displayed on which display contexts?
• The HSI hover display will switch to a full compass rose above?
• What does the TAC MAP display provide?
• Which statement accurately describes how EICAS cautions and advisories are displayed?
• The USER partition of the DTS is used for which purpose?
• When the Free Cursor is adjacent to a bezel key, it changes from white to which color?
• In ILS DECL Mode, what is the deceleration rate?
• The I-event switch captures data around an event; the capture window is 15 seconds before and after.
• The EGI provides what?
• Which option is the correct label for the Mission Data Page?
• Armor protection is provided for the body of the seat occupant against _____?
• The map annunciation block displays which two types of annunciations?
• How is a radio's audio disabled?
• What is the flight time on a full tank?
• GA mode is known as recovery mode or unusual attitude recovery mode.
• What is the main rotor diameter of the UH-60M?
• In flight, should circuit breakers be pulled or reset?
• Which NAV SRC is capture only?
• While the FMS is configured for Lat/Long, the range ring distance readouts are displayed in which units?
• Which function inserts the procedure into the active flight plan and provides flight guidance to the first point?
• The flight crew __________ manually verify information presented by aircraft systems, (ETA, Req Fuel, Req GS, Duration Range and Bingo) during flight operations.
• What is the combat load for this aircraft?
• The default free cursor is displayed on the TAC Map as which symbol?
• What are the three push buttons on the multi function slew controller (MFSC) and which fingers correspond to each?
• The tail pylon fairing camber is what degree?
• On a screen, a box around a parameter indicates what?
• The pitch and roll attitude inputs to the PFD are provided by what?
• The main transmission forward tilt angle is what?
• What advisory appears on the EICAS when in limited auto mode?
• What happens when the GO ARND button is pressed?
• Loss of FCC #2 results in the loss of which systems?
• The ESIS will operate for a minimum of ________ minutes using its emergency power source
• What is the purpose of the I-event switch?
• What does the BU function provide?
• To see a command bar appear what three things could I select?
• The _________ PERFORMANCE function will ONLY be used to reference PERFORMANCE values after verifying the correct configuration of the aircraft
• To adjust VS rate, which device is used?
• What color is used to denote PFD miscompare annunciations?
• Stabilator position indicator normal range?
• Which DTS test status indicates completion?
• Pressing the Multi-Function Slew Controller which button while the cursor is in Free Cursor Mode will cause an edit menu to appear?
• What navigation solution is indicated by IG2?
• Which partition stores the memory used for DIG MAP files?
• Which control is used to load mission data?
• In order for the ILS DECL mode to function, __________ mode must be engaged.
• ILS DECL Mode Functionality: Can achieve 70 knots prior to reaching 200 ft AGL, with a .5kts/sec decel rate
• What is mounted on either side of the nose door?
• A miscompare of EICAS data is displayed using which combination of text and background colors?
• Yellow Box: What does the text within the yellow box indicate?
• What is the total number of store points?
• The ICS consists of how many panels located throughout the aircraft?
• Which navigation source is NOT available for bearing pointer selection?
• An 'R' represents _________ in the wind speed and direction field.
• From the menu, selecting data accesses symbol, graphic, or waypoint data for the hooked item. Which option completes the statement?
• Within each EICAS window, where is the most recently activated caution or advisory displayed?
• Which color mapping is correct for FMS display states?
• Which word completes the sentence: The flight crew __________ manually verify information during flight operations?
• Which icon is used to switch the Active Cursor between the left and right onside MFDs?
• Which partition provides 2 GB of memory for storing DIG MAP files in the FMS?
• The cargo hook capacity is up to how many pounds?
• A flashing status indicator light on the DTU indicates what?
• Where is the ESIS display located?
• What provides the means of manually selecting alternate data sources for the pilot and copilot MFDs?
• In the symbol and waypoint edit workflow, the action NEXT corresponds to which state?
• For airspeed between 60 and 80 knots, which actions occur when the cyclic trim beeper is plunged?
• Standby mode indicates what about the corresponding flight director?
• To clear the FLT DIR FAIL or FD COUPLE FAIL caution, what must the pilot clear on the AFCS control panel?
• What is the function of the 24 bezel keys on the MFD?
• What happens when there is an input failure?
• __________ allows the crew to view waypoint/airport information and available procedures, but the crew cannot select load or activate approaches from the screen
• On power-up, what does the FMS header default to?
• For flights over 6 hours, the engine oil level should be _______.
• PCMCIA cards must be inserted into the DTU with which orientation?
• Stabilator placement is: Below 40 knots full down; Above 40 knots 0. Which statement correctly describes this placement?
• The panning function is only available in which mode?
• What does RMT enable?
• Which statement best describes the CONTAINMNT EXCD alert?
• How is VS rate adjusted?
• The ND PLAN is oriented?
• What status does the DTS test show upon completion?
• What are the two types of frame files?
• Which MFSC button corresponds to the ring finger?
• How many navigational points are contained in the FMS database?
• The panning function is only available in which mode?
• Operating an aircraft against gust lock is __________.
• Two places to see storm scope?
• What is the total main tank useable fuel in gallons?
• The TAC MAP display provides which type of information?
• The cautions/advisories in the CAS box on the TAC page appear in what order?
• The PFD miscompare annunciations are displayed as yellow parameter label with a double-headed yellow arrow above. What term describes these annunciations?
• The Electro-Optic Missile sensors (EOMS) are part of which system?
• Above 120 knots, what commands are issued when the cyclic trim beeper is plunged?
• The FMS database contains how many navigational points?
• Easiest place to see distance and bearing on HVR page?
• Range Rings are only displayed while the map is in which mode?
• Which statement is correct about the GO ARND button pressing?